시험덤프
매달, 우리는 1000명 이상의 사람들이 시험 준비를 잘하고 시험을 잘 통과할 수 있도록 도와줍니다.
  / SY0-701 덤프  / SY0-701 문제 연습

CompTIA SY0-701 시험

CompTIA Security+ 온라인 연습

최종 업데이트 시간: 2025년08월13일

당신은 온라인 연습 문제를 통해 CompTIA SY0-701 시험지식에 대해 자신이 어떻게 알고 있는지 파악한 후 시험 참가 신청 여부를 결정할 수 있다.

시험을 100% 합격하고 시험 준비 시간을 35% 절약하기를 바라며 SY0-701 덤프 (최신 실제 시험 문제)를 사용 선택하여 현재 최신 77개의 시험 문제와 답을 포함하십시오.

 / 10

Question No : 1


After reviewing the following vulnerability scanning report:
Server:192.168.14.6
Service: Telnet
Port: 23 Protocol: TCP
Status: Open Severity: High
Vulnerability: Use of an insecure network protocol
A security analyst performs the following test:
nmap -p 23 192.168.14.6 ―script telnet-encryption
PORT STATE SERVICE REASON
23/tcp open telnet syn-ack
I telnet encryption:
| _ Telnet server supports encryption
Which of the following would the security analyst conclude for this reported vulnerability?

정답:
Explanation:
A false positive is a result that indicates a vulnerability or a problem when there is none. In this case, the vulnerability scanning report shows that the telnet service on port 23 is open and uses an insecure network protocol. However, the security analyst performs a test using nmap and a script that checks for telnet encryption support. The result shows that the telnet server supports encryption, which means that the data transmitted between the client and the server can be protected from eavesdropping. Therefore, the reported vulnerability is a false positive and does not reflect the actual security posture of the server. The security analyst should verify the encryption settings of the telnet server and client and ensure that they are configured properly3.
Reference: 3: Telnet Protocol - Can You Encrypt Telnet?

Question No : 2


A company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a file share.
Which of the following describes how this data will most likely be classified? (Select two).

정답:
Explanation:
Data classification is the process of assigning labels to data based on its sensitivity and business impact.
Different organizations and sectors may have different data classification schemes, but a common one is the following1:
Public: Data that can be freely disclosed to anyone without any harm or risk.
Private: Data that is intended for internal use only and may cause some harm or risk if disclosed. Confidential: Data that is intended for authorized use only and may cause significant harm or risk if disclosed.
Restricted: Data that is intended for very limited use only and may cause severe harm or risk if disclosed.
In this scenario, the company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a file share. This data is likely to be classified as confidential and restricted, because it is not meant for public or private use, and it may cause serious damage to national security or public safety if disclosed. The government may also have specific requirements or regulations for handling such data, such as encryption, access control, and auditing2.
Reference: 1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17 2: Data Classification Practices: Final Project Description Released

Question No : 3


A small business uses kiosks on the sales floor to display product information for customers. A security team discovers the kiosks use end-of-life operating systems.
Which of the following is the security team most likely to document as a security implication of the current architecture?

정답:
Explanation:
End-of-life operating systems are those that are no longer supported by the vendor or manufacturer, meaning they do not receive any security updates or patches. This makes them vulnerable to exploits and attacks that take advantage of known or unknown flaws in the software. Patch availability is the security implication of using end-of-life operating systems, as it affects the ability to fix or prevent security issues. Other factors, such as product software compatibility, ease of recovery, or cost of replacement, are not directly related to security, but rather to functionality, availability, or budget.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 29 1

Question No : 4


A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to explicitly raise awareness about the increase of ransomware-as-a-service in a report to the management team.
Which of the following best describes the threat actor in the CISO's report?

정답:
Explanation:
Ransomware-as-a-service is a type of cybercrime where hackers sell or rent ransomware tools or services to other criminals who use them to launch attacks and extort money from victims. This is a typical example of organized crime, which is a group of criminals who work together to conduct illegal activities for profit. Organized crime is different from other types of threat actors, such as insider threats, hacktivists, or nation-states, who may have different motives, methods, or targets.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 17 1

Question No : 5


After an audit, an administrator discovers all users have access to confidential data on a file server.
Which of the following should the administrator use to restrict access to the data quickly?

정답:
Explanation:
Access control lists (ACLs) are rules that specify which users or groups can access which resources on a file server. They can help restrict access to confidential data by granting or denying permissions based on the identity or role of the user. In this case, the administrator can use ACLs to quickly modify the access rights of the users and prevent them from accessing the data they are not authorized to see.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308 1

Question No : 6


A systems administrator is creating a script that would save time and prevent human error when performing account creation for a large number of end users.
Which of the following would be a good use case for this task?

정답:
Explanation:
Orchestration is the process of automating multiple tasks across different systems and applications. It can help save time and reduce human error by executing predefined workflows and scripts. In this case, the systems administrator can use orchestration to create accounts for a large number of end users without having to manually enter their information and assign permissions.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 457 1

Question No : 7


Which of the following practices would be best to prevent an insider from introducing malicious code into a company's development process?

정답:
Explanation:
Peer review and approval is a practice that involves having other developers or experts review the code before it is deployed or released. Peer review and approval can help detect and prevent malicious code, errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, and poor quality in the development process. Peer review and approval can also enforce coding standards, best practices, and compliance requirements. Peer review and approval can be done manually or with the help of tools, such as code analysis, code review, and code signing.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 11: Secure Application Development, page 543 2

Question No : 8


A company is adding a clause to its AUP that states employees are not allowed to modify the operating system on mobile devices.
Which of the following vulnerabilities is the organization addressing?

정답:
Explanation:
Jailbreaking is the process of removing the restrictions imposed by the manufacturer or carrier on a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad. Jailbreaking allows users to install unauthorized applications, modify system settings, and access root privileges. However, jailbreaking also exposes the device to potential security risks, such as malware, spyware, unauthorized access, data loss, and voided warranty. Therefore, an organization may prohibit employees from jailbreaking their mobile devices to prevent these vulnerabilities and protect the corporate data and network.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 507 2

Question No : 9


A client demands at least 99.99% uptime from a service provider's hosted security services.
Which of the following documents includes the information the service provider should return to the client?

정답:
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the level of service expected by a customer from a service provider, indicating the metrics by which that service is measured, and the remedies or penalties, if any, should the agreed-upon levels not be achieved. An SLA can specify the minimum uptime or availability of a service, such as 99.99%, and the consequences for failing to meet that standard. A memorandum of agreement (MOA), a statement of work (SOW), and a memorandum of understanding (MOU) are other types of documents that can be used to establish a relationship between parties, but they do not typically include the details of service levels and performance metrics that an SLA does.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17

Question No : 10


A Chief Information Security Officer wants to monitor the company's servers for SQLi attacks and allow for comprehensive investigations if an attack occurs. The company uses SSL decryption to allow traffic monitoring.
Which of the following strategies would best accomplish this goal?

정답:
Explanation:
Full packet capture is a technique that records all network traffic passing through a device, such as a router or firewall. It allows for detailed analysis and investigation of network events, such as SQLi attacks, by providing the complete content and context of the packets. Full packet capture can help identify the source, destination, payload, and timing of an SQLi attack, as well as the impact on the server and database. Logging NetFlow traffic, network traffic sensors, and endpoint and OS-specific security logs can provide some information about network activity, but they do not capture the full content of the packets, which may limit the scope and depth of the investigation.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 372-373

Question No : 11


Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?

정답:
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed-upon standards.
Reference: Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under “About the exam”, bullet point 3: “Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.”
CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: “Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider.”

Question No : 12


After a recent ransomware attack on a company's system, an administrator reviewed the log files.
Which of the following control types did the administrator use?

정답:
Explanation:
Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network. They can help to discover the source, scope, and impact of an attack, and provide evidence for further analysis or investigation. Detective controls include log files, security audits, intrusion detection systems, network monitoring tools, and antivirus software. In this case, the administrator used log files as a detective control to review the ransomware attack on the company’s system. Log files are records of events and activities that occur on a system or network, such as user actions, system errors, network traffic, and security alerts. They can provide valuable information for troubleshooting, auditing, and forensics.
Reference: Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under “About the exam”, bullet point 3: “Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.”
CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: “Detective controls are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network.”
Control Types C CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 2.1 - Professor Messer IT …, under “Detective Controls”: “Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network.”

Question No : 13


Malware spread across a company's network after an employee visited a compromised industry blog.
Which of the following best describes this type of attack?

정답:
Explanation:
A watering-hole attack is a type of cyberattack that targets groups of users by infecting websites that they commonly visit. The attackers exploit vulnerabilities to deliver a malicious payload to the organization’s network. The attack aims to infect users’ computers and gain access to a connected corporate network. The attackers target websites known to be popular among members of a particular organization or demographic. The attack differs from phishing and spear-phishing attacks, which typically attempt to steal data or install malware onto users’ devices1
In this scenario, the compromised industry blog is the watering hole that the attackers used to spread malware across the company’s network. The attackers likely chose this blog because they knew that the employees of the company were interested in its content and visited it frequently. The attackers may have injected malicious code into the blog or redirected the visitors to a spoofed website that hosted the malware. The malware then infected the employees’ computers and propagated to the network.
Reference1: Watering Hole Attacks: Stages, Examples, Risk Factors & Defense …

Question No : 14


A company's marketing department collects, modifies, and stores sensitive customer data. The infrastructure team is responsible for securing the data while in transit and at rest.
Which of the following data roles describes the customer?

정답:
Explanation:
According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, data subjects are the individuals whose personal data is collected, processed, or stored by an organization. Data subjects have certain rights and expectations regarding how their data is handled, such as the right to access, correct, delete, or restrict their data. Data subjects are different from data owners, who are the individuals or entities that have the authority and responsibility to determine how data is classified, protected, and used. Data subjects are also different from data processors, who are the individuals or entities that perform operations on data on behalf of the data owner, such as collecting, modifying, storing, or transmitting data. Data subjects are also different from data custodians, who are the individuals or entities that implement the security controls and procedures specified by the data owner to protect data while in transit and at rest.
Reference CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Data Security, page 511

Question No : 15


Which of the following would be the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility? (Select two).

정답:
Explanation:
Badge access and access control vestibule are two of the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility. Badge access requires the personnel to present a valid and authenticated badge to a reader or scanner that grants or denies access based on predefined rules and permissions. Access control vestibule is a physical security measure that consists of a small room or chamber with two doors, one leading to the outside and one leading to the secure area. The personnel must enter the vestibule and wait for the first door to close and lock before the second door can be opened. This prevents tailgating or piggybacking by unauthorized individuals.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, pages 197-1981

 / 10