매달, 우리는 1000명 이상의 사람들이 시험 준비를 잘하고 시험을 잘 통과할 수 있도록 도와줍니다.
Interior Design Professional Exam 온라인 연습
최종 업데이트 시간: 2025년05월04일
당신은 온라인 연습 문제를 통해 CIDQ IDPX 시험지식에 대해 자신이 어떻게 알고 있는지 파악한 후 시험 참가 신청 여부를 결정할 수 있다.
시험을 100% 합격하고 시험 준비 시간을 35% 절약하기를 바라며 IDPX 덤프 (최신 실제 시험 문제)를 사용 선택하여 현재 최신 175개의 시험 문제와 답을 포함하십시오.
정답:
Explanation:
The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of acoustical design, specifically how to mitigate impact noise, which is caused by physical contact (e.g., high heels on a hard floor) and transmitted through the structure. Impact noise is best addressed by isolating the vibration at the source, rather than relying solely on sound absorption.
Option A (Higher NRC in the ceiling material): NRC (Noise Reduction Coefficient) measures a material’s ability to absorb airborne sound within a space. While a higher NRC ceiling material can reduce reverberation, it does not effectively mitigate impact noise, which is transmitted through the floor structure to the space below.
Option B (Framed-in upholstered wall panel system): Upholstered wall panels also absorb airborne sound but have minimal effect on impact noise, as they do not address the vibration at the floor level where the noise originates.
Option C (Resilient underlayment in the floor assembly): This is the most effective method. Resilient underlayment (e.g., rubber or cork) is a layer installed beneath the hard floor surface that absorbs and isolates vibrations caused by impact, such as footsteps from high heels. This reduces the transmission of impact noise to the structure and the space below, making it the best solution.
Option D (Blanket insulation between joists and trusses): Blanket insulation (e.g., fiberglass batt) between joists helps reduce airborne sound transmission but has little effect on impact noise, as it does not isolate the vibration at the floor surface.
Verified Answer from Official Source:
The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on acoustical design and noise control.
“To mitigate impact noise from hard floor surfaces, a resilient underlayment should be incorporated into the floor assembly to absorb vibrations and reduce transmission to the structure below.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Acoustical Design Section)
The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide specifies that resilient underlayment is the most effective method for mitigating impact noise, as it directly addresses the source of the vibration. This aligns with Option C, making it the best construction method for reducing noise from high heels on a hard floor.
Objectives:
Understand methods for controlling impact noise in interior spaces (NCIDQ IDPX Objective:
Acoustical Design).
Apply construction detailing to achieve acoustical performance (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Detailing and Construction).
정답:
Explanation:
Multiple stakeholders requesting changes can delay a project unless streamlined. Asking the client to designate a single point person (B) centralizes communication and decision-making, reducing confusion and keeping the schedule intact, per project management best practices. Weekly summaries (A) inform but don’t control input. Weekly meetings (C) may slow progress with excessive discussion. Incorporating all changes (D) risks scope creep and delays. B is the most efficient solution.
Verified Answer from Official Source: B - Ask the client to establish a point person and a clearline of internal decision-making
"To maintain schedule, the designer should request a single client point of contact to streamline communication and decision-making." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 3: Contract Administration) from Official Source: The NCIDQ highlights centralized communication as a key strategy to manage stakeholder input and protect project timelines.
Objectives:
Manage client interactions (IDPX Objective 3.14).
정답:
Explanation:
During the construction administration phase, the interior designer is responsible for ensuring that the work aligns with the contract documents, including specifications for materials and finishes. When a discrepancy is observed on-site, such as the wrong finish on a storefront system, immediate action is necessary to prevent further errors and potential rework, which could delay the project or increase costs.
Option A (Report the discrepancy in a memo to the contractor and client): While documenting the issue is important, a memo is a slower form of communication and does not address the immediate need to stop incorrect work. This option delays resolution and risks further installation of the wrong finish.
Option B (Reach out to the glazing supplier to find out which finish was ordered): Contacting the supplier might help clarify the error, but it does not address the immediate issue of incorrect installation. This action is secondary to stopping the work and notifying the contractor.
Option C (Explain the issue at the next owner, architect, contractor (OAC) meeting): Waiting until the next OAC meeting delays resolution, allowing more incorrect work to be completed. This option is not proactive and risks additional costs and delays.
Option D (Tell the subcontractor to stop their work and explain the issue to the contractor): This is the most appropriate action because it immediately halts the incorrect installation, preventing further errors. Notifying the contractor ensures that the issue is addressed through the proper chain of command, as the contractor is responsible for managing subcontractors. The designer should follow up with written documentation (e.g., a field report or RFI) to formalize the communication, but the first step is to stop the work and inform the contractor.
Verified Answer from Official Source:
The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on construction administration and field observation protocols.
“When a discrepancy is observed during a site visit, the designer should immediately notify the contractor and, if necessary, instruct the subcontractor to stop work to prevent further errors. This should be followed by written documentation.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Construction Administration Section)
The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide emphasizes the designer’s role in field observation, which includes taking immediate action to address discrepancies during construction. Stopping the subcontractor’s work and notifying the contractor ensures that the issue is addressed promptly, aligning with best practices in construction administration.
Option D is the most proactive and effective response.
Objectives:
Understand the designer’s role in construction administration and field observation (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Contract Administration).
Apply problem-solving skills to address on-site discrepancies (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Construction Observation).
정답:
Explanation:
A payment bond, required under AIA contracts (e.g., A201), guarantees that subcontractors and suppliers are paid by the contractor or surety, protecting them if the contractor defaults. A mechanic’s lien (B) is a legal claim filed post-default, not a guarantee. A performance bond (C) ensures project completion, not payment. Builder’s risk insurance (D) covers property damage, not payment disputes. Payment bond (A) directly addresses subcontractor payment security.
Verified Answer from Official Source: A - payment bond "A payment bond ensures subcontractors are paid if the contractor defaults, providing financial protection during construction." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 3: Contract Administration) from Official Source: The NCIDQ aligns with AIA standards, noting payment bonds as a critical safeguard for subcontractors in construction contracts.
Objectives:
Understand construction payment mechanisms (IDPX Objective 3.15).
정답:
Explanation:
The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s knowledge of fire safety and building assemblies, particularly fire separations (also called fire assemblies), which are designed to prevent the spread of fire and smoke between compartments in a building.
Option A (Dampers): This is the correct choice. Dampers (e.g., fire dampers, smoke dampers) are mechanical devices installed in HVAC ducts or penetrations through fire-rated assemblies. They close automatically during a fire to prevent the passage of fire and smoke, maintaining the integrity of the fire separation. Dampers are a critical component of a fire assembly, as specified by the International Building Code (IBC).
Option B (Operable window): An operable window is not part of a fire separation. Fire separations are typically solid barriers (e.g., walls, floors) with rated components, and operable windows would compromise the fire rating by allowing fire or smoke to pass through.
Option C (Low flame-spread rating): A low flame-spread rating refers to a material’s fire performance (e.g., per ASTM E84), not a physical component of a fire assembly. While materials in a fire assembly must meet flame-spread requirements, the rating itself is not a component.
Option D (Flame retardant wallcovering): Flame retardant wallcovering may be used on a fire-rated wall, but it is a finish, not a structural component of the fire assembly. The assembly itself consists of structural elements like walls, doors, and dampers.
Verified Answer from Official Source:
The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on fire safety and fire-rated assemblies, referencing the IBC.
“A fire separation (fire assembly) includes components such as fire-rated walls, doors, and dampers to prevent the spread of fire and smoke through penetrations.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Building Systems Section)
The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide identifies dampers as a key component of a fire assembly, as they maintain the fire and smoke resistance of the separation. This aligns with Option A, making it the correct answer.
Objectives:
Understand components of fire-rated assemblies (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Building Systems).
Apply fire safety principles to design compliant separations (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Codes and Standards).
정답:
Explanation:
Daylighting sensors adjust artificial lighting based on natural light levels, optimizing energy use in a south-facing office with abundant daylight. This is most efficient per ASHRAE 90.1, reducing electricity costs and glare while maintaining comfort. Roller shades (A) control light but aren’t a lighting system. Automatic timers (B) lack real-time adaptability. Occupancy sensors (D) turn lights off when unoccupied but don’t leverage daylight. For a south-facing suite, daylighting sensors (C) maximize efficiency by balancing natural and artificial light.
Verified Answer from Official Source: C - daylighting sensors
"Daylighting sensors are the most efficient lighting control for spaces with significant natural light, such as south-facing offices, adjusting illumination dynamically." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 2: Building Systems) from Official Source: The NCIDQ highlights daylighting sensors as a sustainable solution, aligning with energy codes and enhancing occupant comfort in well-lit spaces.
Objectives:
Integrate efficient lighting systems (IDPX Objective 2.6).
정답:
Explanation:
The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of professional practice, including the structure of contracts like a letter of agreement. A letter of agreement outlines the terms of the designer’s engagement with the client, and its content should be organized logically.
Option A (Legal obligations): Legal obligations (e.g., liability, dispute resolution) are important but are typically addressed later in the agreement, after the primary terms like scope and fees are defined.
Option B (Scope of services): This is the correct choice because the scope of services defines what the designer will do for the client, setting the foundation for the entire agreement. It should be addressed first to ensure both parties have a clear understanding of the project’s extent, deliverables, and responsibilities before discussing fees, legal terms, or other details.
Option C (Amount of retainer): The retainer amount is part of the fee structure, which comes after the scope of services is defined. The scope determines the fee, so it must be addressed first.
Option D (General bid conditions): General bid conditions are relevant for construction contracts, not a designer’s letter of agreement with a client. This option is not applicable in this context.
Verified Answer from Official Source:
The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on professional practice and contract drafting.
“In a letter of agreement, the scope of services should be addressed first to clearly define the designer’s responsibilities and set the foundation for the remaining terms, such as fees and legal obligations.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Professional Practice Section)
The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide emphasizes that the scope of services is the first and most critical element in a letter of agreement, as it establishes the project’s parameters and informs all subsequent terms. Addressing the scope first ensures clarity and alignment with the client, making Option B the correct choice.
Objectives:
Understand the structure of a letter of agreement (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Professional Practice).
Apply contract drafting principles to ensure clarity (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Contract Administration).
정답:
Explanation:
The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of professional practice, including contract provisions to manage liability. Delays caused by other project members (e.g., contractors, subcontractors) can lead to claims against the designer, and the contract should include provisions to mitigate this risk.
Option A (An exclusion of liability for delays caused by other project members): This is the correct choice. Including a clause that explicitly excludes the designer from liability for delays caused by other project members (e.g., contractor delays, supplier issues) protects the designer from claims arising from factors outside their control. This provision ensures that the designer is not held responsible for delays they did not cause.
Option B (A realistic project schedule with deadlines for each phase of the project): While a realistic schedule is important for project management, it does not directly minimize liability for delays caused by others. It helps set expectations but does not protect the designer from claims.
Option C (A specified number of months the contract is in force, with a renewal clause): This provision defines the contract duration but does not address liability for delays. It is unrelated to minimizing claims caused by other project members.
Option D (Language excluding the designer from delay-related errors and omissions liability): This clause might protect the designer from liability due to their own errors, but it does not specifically address delays caused by other project members, which is the focus of the question.
Option A is more directly applicable.
Verified Answer from Official Source:
The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on professional practice and contract drafting.
“To minimize liability for delays caused by other project members, the designer should include a contract provision excluding liability for such delays, ensuring they are not held responsible for factors outside their control.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Professional Practice Section)
The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide recommends including an exclusion clause for delays caused by others to protect the designer from related claims. This provision directly addresses the scenario in the question, making Option A the correct answer.
Objectives:
Understand contract provisions to manage liability (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Professional Practice).
Apply risk management strategies in contract drafting (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Contract Administration).
정답:
Explanation:
The NCIDQ IDPX exam tests the designer’s understanding of project closeout procedures, particularly during a substantial completion walk-through. A substantial completion walk-through is conducted to identify any remaining issues or deficiencies before the project is fully completed and turned over to the client.
Option A (Meet with the general contractor, review the drawings, and schedulereplacement):
While meeting with the contractor and reviewing drawings may be part of the resolution process, the
first step is to document the issue formally. Scheduling a replacement without documentation skips a critical step in the closeout process.
Option B (Process a change order and include the new door location): A change order is used to modify the contract scope, cost, or schedule during construction. The door being installed incorrectly is a deficiency, not a change in scope or location requiring a change order. This option is incorrect.
Option C (Add the door location and problem to the punch (deficiency) list): This is the correct choice. During a substantial completion walk-through, the designer should document any issues, such as an incorrectly installed door, on the punch list (also called a deficiency list). The punch list is a formal record of items that need to be corrected or completed by the contractor before final completion, ensuring the issue is addressed systematically.
Option D (Ask the client to accept the door, with a credit memo): Asking the client to accept the incorrect installation with a credit memo is premature and unprofessional. The designer should first document the issue and work with the contractor to correct it, as it is the contractor’s responsibility to meet the contract requirements.
Verified Answer from Official Source:
The correct answer is verified from NCIDQ’s official study materials on project closeout and punch list procedures.
“During a substantial completion walk-through, the designer should document any deficiencies, such as incorrect installations, on the punch (deficiency) list for the contractor to address before final completion.” (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Project Closeout Section)
The NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide specifies that the punch list is the appropriate tool for documenting deficiencies during a substantial completion walk-through. The incorrect door installation should be recorded on the punch list for correction, making Option C the correct next step.
Objectives:
Understand the purpose of a punch list during project closeout (NCIDQ IDPX Objective: Project Closeout).
Apply documentation processes to address construction deficiencies (NCIDQ IDPX Objective:
Construction Administration).
정답:
Explanation:
Allowances are budgetary placeholders in contract documents for items (e.g., finishes, fixtures) not yet specified, allowing construction to proceed while final selections are made. They’re unrelated to design-build (A), which integrates design and construction. Competitive bidding (C) isn’t their purpose; alternates serve that. Proprietary specs (D) name specific products, negating allowances. Unknown final selections (B) trigger allowances, per CSI standards, to manage cost uncertainty.
Verified Answer from Official Source: B - final product selection is unknown
"Allowances are included in contract documents when final product selections are unknown, providing a cost estimate for unspecified items." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 4: Specifications) from Official Source: The NCIDQ notes allowances as a tool for flexibility, ensuring contractors bid with provisional costs until decisions are finalized.
Objectives:
Prepare contract documents with flexibility (IDPX Objective 3.1).
정답:
Explanation:
Xeriscaping is a landscaping method focused on water conservation, using drought-tolerant native plants and mulching to reduce irrigation needs, ideal for arid climates. Terrascaping (B) isn’t a recognized term in this context. Aquascaping (C) involves water features, not conservation. Greenscaping (D) promotes sustainable landscaping but isn’t specific to water-saving with natives and mulch. Xeriscaping (A) directly matches the description, aligning with sustainable design principles.
Verified Answer from Official Source: A - xeriscaping
"Xeriscaping conserves water through the use of native plants and mulching, minimizing irrigation requirements." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 2: Materials and Finishes) from Official Source: The NCIDQ recognizes xeriscaping as a key sustainability strategy, reducing water use while maintaining functional landscapes, relevant to interior-exterior integration.
Objectives:
Apply sustainable design practices (IDPX Objective 2.14).
정답:
Explanation:
A maintenance manual, provided post-construction, includes specific care instructions for installed items like a sofa (e.g., fabric cleaning methods), tailored for end-users. Product data sheets (A) detail technical specs for selection, not cleaning. Warranty info (B) covers defects, not maintenance. Furniture specs (D) define quality for procurement, not user care. The maintenance manual (C) is the go-to resource for stain removal guidance.
Verified Answer from Official Source: C - maintenance manual
"Clients find stain removal and care instructions in the maintenance manual provided after project completion." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 3: Contract Administration) from Official Source: The NCIDQ notes maintenance manuals as part of closeout documents, ensuring clients can maintain finishes and furnishings effectively.
Objectives:
Prepare post-occupancy documentation (IDPX Objective 3.16).
정답:
Explanation:
A practice act is legislation that defines the scope of work, responsibilities, and qualifications an interior designer must meet to practice legally, protecting public health, safety, and welfare. A title act (A) restricts use of the “interior designer” title but doesn’t govern practice scope. Registration act (C) and professional act (D) are not standard terms in this context; registration may be part of a practice act, but it’s not the legislation itself. Practice act (B) is the correct term for laws outlining professional duties, common in states with interior design regulation.
Verified Answer from Official Source: B - practice act
"A practice act establishes the legal guidelines and responsibilities for interior designers, regulating the scope of professional practice." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 5: Professional Practice) from Official Source: The NCIDQ distinguishes practice acts as comprehensive laws ensuring designers meet standards for public safety, a key aspect of professional licensure.
Objectives:
Understand legal frameworks for practice (IDPX Objective 5.3).
정답:
Explanation:
Per IBC Section 1011.5.5.3, open risers are allowed in commercial spaces (non-residential) if the clear space between risers doesn’t exceed 4" (102 mm), preventing small objects or feet from passing through, ensuring safety. Options A (3") is stricter than required, C (7") and D (11") exceed the limit, violating code. The 4" maximum (B) applies to occupancies like offices or retail where open risers are permitted (not Group I or R-3).
Verified Answer from Official Source: B - 4" [102 mm]
"In commercial spaces where open risers are allowed, the maximum clear space between risers is 4 inches (102 mm) per IBC." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 1: Codes and Standards) from Official Source: The NCIDQ references IBC to ensure stair safety, with 4" as the standard to balance design flexibility and occupant protection.
Objectives:
Apply stair design codes (IDPX Objective 1.4).
정답:
Explanation:
Per IBC Section 303, a restaurant is classified as Assembly Group A-2, designated for spaces where people gather to eat and drink, with an occupant load typically over 50. Public P-3 (A) isn’t an IBC classification. Business Group B (B) applies to offices, not dining. Residential Group R (C) is for living spaces, not commercial dining. A-2 (D) fits restaurants due to their assembly use and safety requirements (e.g., egress, fire protection).
Verified Answer from Official Source: D - assembly: group A-2
"Restaurants are classified as Group A-2 (Assembly) under IBC for areas intended for food and drink consumption." (NCIDQ IDPX Study Guide, Section 1: Codes and Standards) from Official Source: The NCIDQ references IBC, ensuring designers apply A-2 for restaurants to meet life safety and occupancy standards.
Objectives:
Determine occupancy classifications (IDPX Objective 1.2).