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ISACA CCOA 시험

ISACA Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst 온라인 연습

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Question No : 1


Which of the following Is a control message associated with the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)?

정답:
Explanation:
The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used for error reporting and diagnostics in IP networks.
Control Messages: ICMP messages inform the sender about network issues, such as:
Destination Unreachable: Indicates that the packet could not reach the intended destination.
Echo Request/Reply: Used in ping to test connectivity.
Time Exceeded: Indicates that a packet's TTL (Time to Live) has expired.
Common Usage: Troubleshooting network issues (e.g., ping and traceroute).
Other options analysis:
A. TLS protocol version unsupported: Related to SSL/TLS, not ICMP.
C. 404 not found: An HTTP status code, unrelated to ICMP.
D. Webserver is available: A general statement, not an ICMP message.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 4: Network Protocols and ICMP: Discusses ICMP control messages.
Chapter 7: Network Troubleshooting Techniques: Explains ICMP’s role in diagnostics.

Question No : 2


Which of the following has been established when a business continuity manager explains that a critical system can be unavailable up to 4 hours before operation is significantly impaired?

정답:
Explanation:
The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable time that a system can be down before significantly impacting business operations.
Context: If the critical system can be unavailable for up to 4 hours, the RTO is 4 hours.
Objective: To define how quickly systems must be restored after a disruption to minimize operational impact.
Disaster Recovery Planning: RTO helps design recovery strategies and prioritize resources.
Other options analysis:
A. Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD): Represents the absolute maximum time without operation, not the target recovery time.
B. Service level agreement (SLA): Defines service expectations but not recovery timelines. C. Recovery point objective (RPO): Defines data loss tolerance, not downtime tolerance. CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 5: Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery: Explains RTO and its role in recovery planning.
Chapter 7: Recovery Strategy Planning: Highlights RTO as a key metric.

Question No : 3


Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk associated with cybercriminals eavesdropping on unencrypted network traffic?

정답:
Explanation:
The primary risk associated with cybercriminals eavesdropping on unencrypted network traffic is data exposure because:
Interception of Sensitive Data: Unencrypted traffic can be easily captured using tools like Wireshark or tcpdump.
Loss of Confidentiality: Attackers can view clear-text data, including passwords, personal information, or financial details.
Common Attack Techniques: Includes packet sniffing and Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attacks.
Mitigation: Encrypt data in transit using protocols like HTTPS, SSL/TLS, or VPNs.
Other options analysis:
A. Data notification: Not relevant in the context of eavesdropping.
B. Data exfiltration: Usually involves transferring data out of the network, not just observing it.
D. Data deletion: Unrelated to passive eavesdropping.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 4: Network Security Operations: Highlights the risks of unencrypted traffic.
Chapter 8: Threat Detection and Monitoring: Discusses eavesdropping techniques and mitigation.

Question No : 4


Which of the following BEST describes static application security testing (SAST)?

정답:
Explanation:
Static Application Security Testing (SAST) involves analyzing source code or compiled code to identify vulnerabilities without executing the program.
Code Analysis: Identifies coding flaws, such as injection, buffer overflows, or insecure function usage.
Early Detection: Can be integrated into the development pipeline to catch issues before deployment.
Automation: Tools like SonarQube, Checkmarx, and Fortify are commonly used.
Scope: Typically focuses on source code, bytecode, or binary code.
Other options analysis:
A. Vulnerability scanning: Typically involves analyzing deployed applications or infrastructure.
C. Attack simulation: Related to dynamic testing (e.g., DAST), not static analysis.
D. Configuration management: Involves maintaining and controlling software configurations, not code analysis.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 9: Application Security Testing: Discusses SAST as a critical part of secure code development.
Chapter 7: Secure Coding Practices: Highlights the importance of static analysis during the SDLC.

Question No : 5


Which of the following Is a PRIMARY function of a network intrusion detection system (IDS)?

정답:
Explanation:
The primary function of a Network Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is to analyze network traffic to detect potentially malicious activity by:
Traffic Monitoring: Continuously examining inbound and outbound data packets.
Signature and Anomaly Detection: Comparing packet data against known attack patterns or baselines.
Alerting: Generating notifications when suspicious patterns are detected.
Passive Monitoring: Unlike Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS), IDS does not block or prevent traffic.
Other options analysis:
A. Dropping traffic: Function of an IPS, not an IDS.
C. Filtering traffic: Typically handled by firewalls, not IDS.
D. Preventing execution: IDS does not actively block or mitigate threats.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 8: Network Monitoring and Intrusion Detection: Describes IDS functions and limitations.
Chapter 7: Security Operations and Monitoring: Covers the role of IDS in network security.

Question No : 6


Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining an effective risk management program?

정답:
Explanation:
Maintaining an effective risk management program requires ongoing review because:
Dynamic Risk Landscape: Threats and vulnerabilities evolve, necessitating continuous reassessment.
Policy and Process Updates: Regular review ensures that risk management practices stay relevant and effective.
Performance Monitoring: Allows for the evaluation of control effectiveness and identification of areas for improvement.
Regulatory Compliance: Ensures that practices remain aligned with evolving legal and regulatory requirements.
Other options analysis:
A. Approved budget: Important for resource allocation, but not the core of continuous effectiveness.
B. Automated reporting: Supports monitoring but does not replace comprehensive reviews.
C. Monitoring regulations: Part of the review process but not the sole factor.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 5: Risk Management Frameworks: Emphasizes the importance of continuous risk assessment.
Chapter 7: Monitoring and Auditing: Describes maintaining a dynamic risk management process.

Question No : 7


Which of the following is MOST helpful to significantly reduce application risk throughout the system development life cycle (SOLC)?

정답:
Explanation:
Implementing Security by Design throughout the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is the most effective way to reduce application risk because:
Proactive Risk Mitigation: Incorporates security practices from the very beginning, rather than addressing issues post-deployment.
Integrated Testing: Security requirements and testing are embedded in each phase of the SDLC.
Secure Coding Practices: Reduces vulnerabilities like injection, XSS, and insecure deserialization.
Cost Efficiency: Fixing issues during design is significantly cheaper than patching after production.
Other options analysis:
B. Security through obscurity: Ineffective as a standalone approach.
C. Peer code reviews: Valuable but limited if security is not considered from the start.
D. Extensive penetration testing: Detects vulnerabilities post-development, but cannot fix flawed architecture.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 10: Secure Software Development Practices: Discusses the importance of integrating security from the design phase.
Chapter 7: Application Security Testing: Highlights proactive security in development.

Question No : 8


An organization has received complaints from a number of its customers that their data has been breached. However, after an investigation, the organization cannot detect any indicators of compromise.
The breach was MOST likely due to which type of attack?

정답:
Explanation:
A supply chain attack occurs when a threat actor compromises a third-party vendor or partner that an organization relies on. The attack is then propagated to the organization through trusted connections or software updates.
Reason for Lack of Indicators of Compromise (IoCs):
The attack often occurs upstream (at a vendor), so the compromised organization may not detect any direct signs of breach.
Trusted Components: Malicious code or backdoors may be embedded in trusted software updates or services.
Real-World Example: The SolarWinds breach, where attackers compromised the software build pipeline, affecting numerous organizations without direct IoCs on their systems.
Why Not the Other Options:
B. Zero-day attack: Typically leaves some traces or unusual behavior.
C. injection attack: Usually detectable through web application monitoring.
D. Man-in-the-middle attack: Often leaves traces in network logs. CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 6: Advanced Threats and Attack Techniques: Discusses the impact of supply chain attacks.
Chapter 9: Incident Response Planning: Covers the challenges of detecting supply chain compromises.

Question No : 9


An organization's financial data was compromised and posted online. The forensics review confirms proper access rights and encryption of the database at the host site.
A lack of which of the following controls MOST likely caused the exposure?

정답:
Explanation:
The compromise occurred despite encryption and proper access rights, indicating that the attacker likely gained access through compromised credentials.
MFA would mitigate this by:
Adding a Layer of Security: Even if credentials are stolen, the attacker would also need the second factor (e.g., OTP).
Account Compromise Prevention: Prevents unauthorized access even if username and password are known.
Insufficient Authentication: The absence of MFA often leaves systems vulnerable to credential-based attacks.
Other options analysis:
A. Continual backups: Addresses data loss, not unauthorized access.
C. Encryption in transit: Encryption was already implemented.
D. Configured firewall: Helps with network security, not authentication.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 7: Access Management and Authentication: Discusses the critical role of MFA in preventing unauthorized access.
Chapter 9: Identity and Access Control: Highlights how MFA reduces the risk of data exposure.

Question No : 10


In which cloud service model are clients responsible for regularly updating the operating system?

정답:
Explanation:
In the IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) model, clients are responsible for managing and updating the operating system because:
Client Responsibility: The provider supplies virtualized computing resources (e.g., VMs), but OS maintenance remains with the client.
Flexibility: Users can install, configure, and update OSs according to their needs. Examples: AWS EC2, Microsoft Azure VMs. Compared to Other Models:
SaaS: The provider manages the entire stack, including the OS.
DBaaS: Manages databases without requiring OS maintenance.
PaaS: The platform is managed, leaving no need for direct OS updates.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 10: Cloud Security and IaaS Management: Discusses client responsibilities in IaaS environments.
Chapter 9: Cloud Deployment Models: Explains how IaaS differs from SaaS and PaaS.

Question No : 11


A change advisory board Is meeting to review a remediation plan for a critical vulnerability, with a cybersecurity analyst in attendance.
When asked about measures to address post-implementation issues, which o! the following would be the analyst's BEST response?

정답:
Explanation:
When discussing a remediation plan for a critical vulnerability, it is essential to include a rollback plan because:
Post-Implementation Issues: Changes can cause unexpected issues or system instability.
Risk Mitigation: A rollback plan ensures quick restoration to the previous state if problems arise.
Best Practice: Always plan for potential failures when applying significant security changes.
Change Management: Ensures continuity by maintaining a safe fallback option.
Other options analysis:
A. Canceling remediation: This is not a proactive or practical approach.
C. Severity-based rollback: Rollback plans should be standard regardless of severity.
D. Additional staff presence: Does not eliminate the need for a rollback strategy. CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 9: Change Management in Security Operations: Emphasizes rollback planning during critical changes.
Chapter 8: Vulnerability Management: Discusses post-remediation risk considerations.

Question No : 12


Which of the following should be completed FIRST in a data loss prevention (OLP) system implementation project?

정답:
Explanation:
The first step in a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) implementation is to perform a data inventory because:
Identification of Sensitive Data: Knowing what data needs protection is crucial before deploying DLP solutions.
Classification and Prioritization: Helps in categorizing data based on sensitivity and criticality.
Mapping Data Flows: Identifies where sensitive data resides and how it moves within the organization.
Foundation for Policy Definition: Enables the creation of effective DLP policies tailored to the organization’s needs.
Other options analysis:
A. Deployment scheduling: Occurs after data inventory and planning.
B. Data analysis: Follows the inventory to understand data use and flow.
D. Resource allocation: Important but secondary to identifying what needs protection.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 6: Data Loss Prevention Strategies: Highlights data inventory as a foundational step.
Chapter 7: Information Asset Management: Discusses how proper inventory supports DLP.

Question No : 13


An attacker has exploited an e-commerce website by injecting arbitrary syntax that was passed to and executed by the underlying operating system.
Which of the following tactics did the attacker MOST likely use?

정답:
Explanation:
The attack described involves injecting arbitrary syntax that is executed by the underlying operating system, characteristic of a Command Injection attack.
Nature of Command Injection:
Direct OS Interaction: Attackers input commands that are executed by the server’s OS.
Vulnerability Vector: Often occurs when user input is passed to system calls without proper validation or sanitization.
Examples: Using characters like ;, &&, or | to append commands.
Common Scenario: Exploiting poorly validated web application inputs that interact with system commands (e.g., ping, dir).
Other options analysis:
B. Injection: Targets databases, not the underlying OS.
C. LDAP Injection: Targets LDAP directories, not the OS.
D. Insecure direct object reference: Involves unauthorized access to objects through predictable URLs, not OS command execution.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 8: Web Application Attacks: Covers command injection and its differences from i.
Chapter 9: Input Validation Techniques: Discusses methods to prevent command injection.

Question No : 14


An organization's hosted database environment is encrypted by the vendor at rest and in transit. The database was accessed, and critical data was stolen.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

정답:
Explanation:
Even when a database environment is encrypted at rest and in transit, data theft can still occur due to misconfigured access control lists (ACLs).
Why ACL Misconfiguration Is Likely:
Access Permissions: If ACLs are not correctly configured, unauthorized users might gain access despite encryption.
Insider Threats: Legitimate users with excessive permissions can misuse access.
Access via Compromised Accounts: If user accounts with broad ACL permissions are compromised,
encryption alone will not protect data.
Encryption Is Not Enough: Encryption protects data in transit and at rest, but once decrypted for use, weak ACLs can expose the data.
Other options analysis:
A. Group rights for access: Not as directly related as misconfigured ACLs.
B. Improper backup procedures: Would affect data recovery, not direct access.
D. Insufficiently strong encryption: Data was accessed, indicating a permission issue, not weak encryption.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 7: Access Control and Data Protection: Discusses the importance of proper ACL configurations.
Chapter 9: Database Security Practices: Highlights common access control pitfalls.

Question No : 15


Which type of access control can be modified by a user or data owner?

정답:
Explanation:
Discretionary Access Control (DAC) allows users or data owners to modify access permissions for resources they own.
Owner-Based Permissions: The resource owner decides who can access or modify the resource.
Flexibility: Users can grant, revoke, or change permissions as needed.
Common Implementation: File systems where owners set permissions for files and directories.
Risk: Misconfigurations can lead to unauthorized access if not properly managed.
Other options analysis:
A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC): Permissions are enforced by the system, not the user.
B. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC): Access is based on roles, not user discretion.
D. Rule-Based Access Control: Permissions are determined by predefined rules, not user control.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition
Reference: Chapter 7: Access Control Models: Clearly distinguishes DAC from other access control methods.
Chapter 9: Secure Access Management: Explains how DAC is implemented and managed.

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