매달, 우리는 1000명 이상의 사람들이 시험 준비를 잘하고 시험을 잘 통과할 수 있도록 도와줍니다.
Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) 온라인 연습
최종 업데이트 시간: 2025년10월03일
당신은 온라인 연습 문제를 통해 Shared Assessments CTPRP 시험지식에 대해 자신이 어떻게 알고 있는지 파악한 후 시험 참가 신청 여부를 결정할 수 있다.
시험을 100% 합격하고 시험 준비 시간을 35% 절약하기를 바라며 CTPRP 덤프 (최신 실제 시험 문제)를 사용 선택하여 현재 최신 125개의 시험 문제와 답을 포함하십시오.
정답:
Explanation:
Controls evaluation is the process of verifying and validating the effectiveness of the controls implemented by the third party to mitigate the identified risks. It involves reviewing the evidence provided by the third party, such as policies, procedures, certifications, attestations, or test results, to determine if the controls are adequate, consistent, and compliant with the requirements and standards of the organization. Controls evaluation also involves analyzing the assessment results to identify any gaps, weaknesses, or issues in the third party’s controls, and reporting the findings and recommendations to the relevant stakeholders. Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit is not a component of controls evaluation, but rather a component of contract management. Contract management is the process of establishing, maintaining, and enforcing the contractual agreements between the organization and the third party. It involves defining the roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations of both parties, as well as the terms and conditions for service delivery, performance measurement, risk management, dispute resolution, and termination. Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit is a key aspect of contract management, as it allows the organization to monitor and verify the third party’s compliance with the contract and the applicable regulations and standards. It also enables the organization to conduct independent audits or assessments of the third party’s controls, processes, and performance, and to request remediation actions if necessary.
References:
• 1: Shared Assessments, a leading provider of third party risk management solutions, offers a comprehensive guide for
Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) candidates, which covers the core concepts and best practices of third party risk management, including controls evaluation and contract management.
• 2: UpGuard, a platform for cybersecurity and third party risk management, provides a detailed overview of the best practices for third party risk assessment, which includes the steps and criteria for evaluating the controls of third parties.
• 3: Deloitte, a global professional services firm, offers an end-to-end managed service for third party risk management, which includes controls evaluation and contract management as key components of the service.
정답:
Explanation:
Indemnification is a contractual obligation by which one party agrees to compensate another party for any losses or damages that may arise from a specified event or circumstance. Mutual indemnification means that both parties agree to indemnify each other for certain losses or damages, such as those caused by a breach of contract, negligence, or violation of law. Mutual indemnification can enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can provide a mechanism for allocating the responsibility and liability for any security incidents or breaches that may affect either party or their customers. Mutual indemnification can also incentivize each party to maintain adequate security controls and practices, as well as to cooperate and communicate effectively in the event of a security incident or breach.
The other options are not contract clauses that enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, because:
• A. Limitation of liability is a contract clause that limits the amount or type of damages that one party can claim from another party in the event of a breach of contract or other legal action. Limitation of liability does not enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can reduce or cap the liability of one party, but not necessarily distribute or balance the risk between both parties.
• B. Cyber insurance is a type of insurance policy that covers the costs and losses resulting from cyberattacks, data breaches, or other cyber incidents. Cyber insurance does not enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can transfer or mitigate the risk to a third-party insurer, but not necessarily allocate or share the risk between both parties.
• C. Force majeure is a contract clause that excuses one or both parties from performing their contractual obligations in the event of an unforeseen or unavoidable event or circumstance that is beyond their control, such as a natural disaster, war, or pandemic. Force majeure does not enable each party to share the amount of information security risk, as it can suspend or terminate the contract in the event of a force majeure event, but not necessarily distribute or balance the risk between both parties.
References:
• Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 62, section 5.2.2: Contractual Terms
• Third-Party Risk Management: Vendor Contract Terms and Conditions, section: Indemnification
• Cybersecurity risks from third party vendors: PwC, section: Contractual terms and conditions
• [Third-Party Risk Management: The 3rd Party Ecosystem: How to Manage the Risk While Keeping the Benefit], section:
Contractual Terms and Conditions
정답:
Explanation:
The contract is not the only enforceable control to stipulate third party service provider obligations for DR/BCP, nor are both programs necessarily triggered by the pandemic. According to the Shared Assessments Program, third party risk management (TPRM) is a continuous process that requires ongoing monitoring and assessment of third parties’ performance, compliance, and resilience. Therefore, the contract should be complemented by other controls, such as due diligence, audits, reviews, and reporting, to ensure that third parties meet the organization’s expectations and standards for DR/BCP. Moreover, DR/BCP are not only relevant for pandemic scenarios, but also for other types of disasters, such as natural disasters, cyberattacks, power outages, or human errors. Therefore, the contract should reflect the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance for different types of disruptions and scenarios, and not be limited to pandemic-related events.
정답:
Explanation:
An unrecoverable data loss event after restoring a system is indicative of a failure to meet the Recovery Point Objective (RPO). The RPO represents the maximum tolerable period in which data might be lost due to an incident and is a critical component of an organization's disaster recovery and business continuity planning. If data restoration efforts are unsuccessful and lead to unrecoverable data loss, it means that the organization's data backup and recovery processes were insufficient to meet the defined RPO, leading to a loss of data beyond the acceptable threshold. This situation underscores the importance of implementing effective data backup and recovery strategies that align with the organization's RPO to minimize data loss and ensure business continuity in the event of a disruption.
References:
• Business continuity and disaster recovery standards, such as ISO 22301 (Security and Resilience - Business Continuity
Management Systems - Requirements), provide guidelines on establishing and managing RPOs as part of a comprehensive business continuity plan.
• The "Disaster Recovery Planning Guide" by the Disaster Recovery Journal (DRJ) offers insights into best practices for data backup and recovery, emphasizing the importance of aligning recovery strategies with defined RPOs to minimize the impact of data loss incidents.
정답:
Explanation:
An Asset Management program is a set of policies, procedures, and practices that aim to optimize the value, performance, and lifecycle of the organization’s assets, such as physical, financial, human, or information assets123. An Asset Management program typically defines policy requirements for the following aspects of asset management:
• The Policy states requirements for the reuse of physical media (e.g., devices, servers, disk drives, etc.): This requirement ensures that the organization follows proper procedures for sanitizing, wiping, or destroying physical media that contain sensitive or confidential data before reusing, recycling, or disposing of them123. This requirement helps prevent data leakage, theft, or loss, and protects the organization’s reputation and compliance123.
• The Policy requires that employees and contractors return all company data and assets upon termination of their employment, contract or agreement: This requirement ensures that the organization recovers all the data and assets that were assigned, loaned, or accessed by the employees and contractors during their employment, contract, or agreement123. This requirement helps maintain the security, integrity, and availability of the organization’s data and assets, and prevents unauthorized or inappropriate use or disclosure of them123.
• The Policy defines requirements for the inventory, identification, and disposal of equipment and/or physical media: This requirement ensures that the organization maintains an accurate and up-to-date record of all the equipment and physical media that it owns, leases, or uses, and assigns unique identifiers to them123. This requirement also ensures that the organization follows proper procedures for disposing of equipment and physical media that are no longer needed, useful, or functional123. This requirement helps improve the efficiency, effectiveness, and accountability of the organization’s asset management processes, and reduces the risks of waste, fraud, or misuse of the organization’s resources123.
However, option D, a policy requirement that requires visitors (including other tenants and maintenance personnel) to sign-in and sign-out of the facility, and to be escorted at all times, is typically not defined in an Asset Management program. Rather, this requirement is more likely to be defined in a Physical Security program, which is a set of policies, procedures, and practices that aim to protect the organization’s premises, assets, and personnel from unauthorized access, damage, or harm. A Physical Security program typically defines policy requirements for the following aspects of physical security:
• The Policy requires visitors (including other tenants and maintenance personnel) to sign-in and sign-out of the facility,
and to be escorted at all times: This requirement ensures that the organization controls and monitors the access of visitors to the facility, and verifies their identity, purpose, and authorization. This requirement also ensures that the organization prevents visitors from accessing restricted or sensitive areas, equipment, or information, and escorts them throughout their visit. This requirement helps enhance the security, safety, and compliance of the organization’s facility, assets, and personnel, and prevents potential threats, incidents, or breaches.
• The Policy defines requirements for the locking, alarming, and surveillance of the facility and its entrances and exits:
This requirement ensures that the organization secures the perimeter and the interior of the facility, and detects and responds to any unauthorized or suspicious activity or intrusion. This requirement also ensures that the organization uses appropriate and effective physical security measures, such as locks, alarms, cameras, guards, or barriers, to deter, prevent, or delay unauthorized access. This requirement helps protect the organization’s facility, assets, and personnel from theft, vandalism, sabotage, or attack.
• The Policy specifies requirements for the emergency preparedness and response of the facility and its occupants: This requirement ensures that the organization plans and implements procedures for dealing with emergencies, such as fire, flood, earthquake, power outage, or active shooter, that may affect the facility and its occupants. This requirement also ensures that the organization provides adequate and accessible equipment, resources, and training for the emergency preparedness and response, such as fire extinguishers, first aid kits, evacuation routes, emergency contacts, or drills. This requirement helps ensure the safety, health, and continuity of the organization’s facility, assets, and personnel, and minimizes the impact and damage of emergencies.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it is the only one that does not reflect a policy requirement that is typically defined in an Asset Management program.
References: The following resources support the verified answer and explanation:
• 1: Asset Management Policy Guide + Free Template | Fiix
• 2: Asset Management Policy: How to Build One From Scratch - Limble CMMS
• 3: How to develop an asset management policy, strategy and governance framework: Set up a consistent approach to asset management in your municipality
• Physical Security Policy - SANS
• Physical Security Policy - IT Governance
정답:
Explanation:
Change management is the process of controlling and documenting any changes to the scope, objectives, requirements, deliverables, or resources of a project or a program. Change management ensures that the impact of any change is assessed and communicated to all stakeholders, and that the changes are implemented in a controlled and coordinated manner. Compliance artifacts are the documents, records, or reports that demonstrate the adherence to the change management process and the regulatory or industry standards.
A robust change management process should include the following attributes:
• Logging: This means that any change request or proposal is recorded in a change log or a change register, along with the details of the change initiator, the change description, the change category, the change priority, the change status, and the change history. Logging helps to track and monitor the progress and outcome of each change, and to provide an audit trail for compliance purposes.
• Approvals: This means that any change request or proposal is reviewed and approved by the appropriate authority or stakeholder, such as the project manager, the sponsor, the customer, the steering committee, or the regulatory body. Approvals help to ensure that the change is justified, feasible, aligned with the project or program objectives, and acceptable to the affected parties.
• Validation: This means that any change request or proposal is verified and tested to ensure that it meets the quality standards, the functional and non-functional requirements, and the expected benefits and outcomes. Validation helps to ensure that the change is implemented correctly, effectively, and efficiently, and that it does not introduce any errors, defects, or risks.
• Back-out and exception procedures: This means that any change request or proposal has a contingency plan or a rollback plan in case the change fails, causes problems, or is rejected. Back-out and exception procedures help to minimize the negative impact of the change, and to restore the original state or the baseline of the project or program. They also help to handle any deviations or issues that may arise during the change implementation or the change review.
References:
• CTPRP Job Guide
• An Agile Approach to Change Management
• CM Overview
• Management Artifacts and its Types
• Achieving Regulatory and Industry Standards Compliance with the Scaled Agile Framework
• 8 Steps for an Effective Change Management Process
정답:
Explanation:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) programs are not based on default tool configuration, but on the specific needs and risks of the organization. DLP programs should be tailored to the data types, locations, flows,
and users that are relevant to the business. DLP programs should also align with the regulatory and contractual obligations, as well as the data risk appetite, of the organization. Default tool configuration may not adequately address these factors and may result in either over-blocking or under-protecting data. Therefore, statement C is false about DLP programs.
References:
• 1: The Best Data Loss Prevention Software Tools - Comparitech
• 2: Build a Successful Data Loss Prevention Program in 5 Steps - Gartner
• 3: What is data loss prevention (DLP)? | Microsoft Security
정답:
Explanation:
A regulation is a rule of order having the force of law, prescribed by a superior or competent authority, relating to the actions of those under the authority’s control. Regulations are issued by various government departments and agencies to carry out the intent of legislation enacted by the legislature of the applicable jurisdiction. Regulations also function to ensure uniform application of the law. A standard is a guideline established generally by private-sector bodies and that are available for use by any person or organization, private or government. The term includes what are commonly referred to as ‘industry standards’ as well as ‘consensus standards’. Standards are developed through a voluntary process of collaboration and consensus among stakeholders, such as manufacturers, consumers, regulators, and experts. Standards may reflect best practices, technical specifications, performance criteria, or quality requirements. Standards do not have the force of law unless they are adopted or referenced by a regulation. Therefore, a regulation must be adhered to by all companies subject to its requirements, but companies can voluntarily choose to follow standards that are relevant and beneficial to their operations, products, or services.
References:
• The Difference Between Regulations and Standards
• Regulations vs Standards: Clearing Up the Confusion - AEM
• Standards vs. Regulations
• Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide
정답:
Explanation:
Performance risk, defined as the risk that a third party may not be able to meet its obligations due to inadequate systems or processes, accurately describes the situation. This type of risk involves concerns about the third party's ability to deliver services or products at the required performance level, potentially due to limitations in their technology infrastructure, operational procedures, or management practices. Identifying and managing performance risk is essential in Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) to ensure that third-party vendors can reliably meet contractual and service-level agreements, thereby minimizing the impact on the organization's operations and service delivery.
References:
• TPRM guidelines, such as those from the Office of the Comptroller of the Currency (OCC) and the Federal Financial
Institutions Examination Council (FFIEC), highlight the importance of assessing and managing performance risks associated with third-party relationships.
• The "Third-Party Risk Management Guide" by ISACA discusses various types of risks, including performance risk, associated with engaging third-party service providers, emphasizing the need for thorough due diligence and ongoing monitoring.
정답:
Explanation:
Questionnaires are one of the most common and effective tools for conducting third party risk assessments. They help organizations gather information about the security and compliance practices of their vendors and service providers, as well as identify any gaps or weaknesses that may pose a risk to the organization. However, not all questionnaires are created equal. Depending on the nature and scope of the third party relationship, different types and levels of questions may be required to adequately assess the risk. Therefore, it is important to configure the assessment questionnaires based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated12.
The risk rating of a third party is determined by various factors, such as the criticality of the service they provide, the sensitivity of the data they handle, the regulatory requirements they must comply with, and the potential impact of a breach or disruption on the organization. The higher the risk rating, the more detailed and comprehensive the questionnaire should be. For example, a high-risk third party that processes personal or financial data may require a questionnaire that covers multiple domains of security and privacy, such as data protection, encryption, access control, incident response, and audit. A low-risk third party that provides a non-critical service or does not handle sensitive data may require a questionnaire that covers only the basic security controls, such as firewall, antivirus, and password policy12.
The type of service that a third party provides also influences the configuration of the questionnaire. Different services may have different security and compliance standards and best practices that need to be addressed. For example, a third party that provides cloud-based services may require a questionnaire that covers topics such as cloud security architecture, data residency, service level agreements, and disaster recovery. A third party that provides software development services may require a questionnaire that covers topics such as software development life cycle, code review, testing, and vulnerability management12.
By configuring the assessment questionnaires based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated, organizations can ensure that they ask the right questions to the right third parties, and obtain relevant and meaningful information to support their risk management decisions. Therefore, the statement that assessment questionnaires should be configured based on the risk rating and type of service being evaluated is TRUE12.
References: 1: How to Use SIG Questionnaires for Better Third-Party Risk Management 2: Third-party risk assessment questionnaires - KPMG India
정답:
Explanation:
A mobile device policy is a set of rules and guidelines that define how an organization’s employees and contractors can use and secure their mobile devices, such as laptops, smartphones, and tablets, to access the organization’s data and network1. A mobile device policy typically covers aspects such as device configuration, authentication, encryption, backup, remote wipe, malware protection, acceptable use, and incident response23.
A mutual NDA is a legal agreement that binds both parties to protect the confidentiality of the information they share with each other. A mutual NDA is usually signed before engaging in a business relationship with a third party, such as a vendor, partner, or customer. A mutual NDA is not directly related to the use and security of mobile devices, and therefore is less likely to be included in an organization’s mobile device policy. A mutual NDA may be part of a broader contract or agreement with a third party, but it is not specific to mobile devices.
The other options are more likely to be included in an organization’s mobile device policy, as they address the risks and responsibilities associated with mobile devices.
For example:
• Language on restricting the use of the mobile device to only business purposes can help prevent unauthorized access, data leakage, and malware infection from personal or untrusted applications or websites2.
• Language detailing the user’s responsibility to not bypass security settings or monitoring applications can help ensure compliance with the organization’s security standards and policies, and enable the detection and prevention of potential incidents2.
• Language detailing specific actions that an organization may take in the event of an information security incident can help define the roles and responsibilities of the users and the organization, and the procedures for reporting, investigating, and resolving incidents involving mobile devices23.
References:
• 1: Mobile Device Policy1, Section 1. Introduction
• 2: Risk Management Guidelines for Mobile Devices2, Section Data Security
• 3: Guidelines for Managing the Security of Mobile Devices in the Enterprise3, Section 4. Recommendations for Mobile
Device Security
• [4]: What is a Mutual NDA?, Section What is a Mutual NDA?
• [5]: Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) Definition, Section Understanding Non-Disclosure Agreements
정답:
Explanation:
Vendor classification or risk tiering is a process of categorizing vendors based on the level of security risk they introduce to an organization12. It is a key component of a third-party risk management (TPRM) program, as it helps to prioritize and allocate resources for vendor assessment, monitoring, and remediation12. The statement D is true, as it reflects the first step of vendor classification or risk tiering, which is to determine the inherent risk of each vendor relationship based on the nature, scope, and complexity of the product or service being outsourced3. Inherent risk is the risk that exists before any controls or mitigating factors are applied3. By calculating the inherent risk, an organization can assign each vendor to a risk tier that reflects the potential impact and likelihood of a security breach or incident involving the vendor3.
The other statements are false, as they do not accurately describe the vendor classification or risk tiering process. The statement A is false, as vendor classification and risk tiers are not based on residual risk calculations, but on inherent risk calculations. Residual risk is the risk that remains after controls or mitigating factors are applied3. Residual risk is used to evaluate the effectiveness of the controls and the need for further action, but not to classify or tier vendors3. The statement B is false, as vendor\ classification and risk tiering should be used for all third party relationships, not only for critical ones.
Vendor classification and risk tiering helps to identify and prioritize the critical vendors, but also to\ manage the low and medium risk vendors according to their respective risk profiles12. The statement C is false, as vendor classification and corresponding risk tiers do not utilize the same due diligence standards for controls evaluation based upon policy, but different ones. Due diligence standards are the criteria and methods used to assess the security posture and performance of vendors. Due diligence standards should vary according to the risk tier of the vendor, as higher risk vendors require more rigorous and frequent evaluation than lower risk vendors.
References:
• 1: What is Vendor Tiering? Optimize Your Vendor Risk Management | UpGuard Blog
• 2: Vendor Tiering Best Practices: Categorizing Vendor Risks | UpGuard Blog
• 3: Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM): A Complete Guide - BlueVoyant
• [4]: Supplemental Examination Procedures for Risk Management of Third-Party Relationships
• [5]: Third Party Risk Management: Why It’s Important And What Features To Look For - Expert Insights
정답:
Explanation:
Scoping is a critical step in third party assessments, as it determines the scope and depth of the assessment based on the inherent risk, impact, and complexity of the vendor relationship. Scoping helps to ensure that the assessment is relevant, efficient, and consistent with the outsourcer’s risk appetite and objectives. Scoping also helps to avoid over or under assessing the vendor, which could result in unnecessary costs, delays, or gaps in risk management. Scoping is not a one-time activity, but rather an ongoing process that should be reviewed and updated throughout the vendor lifecycle. Scoping should be aligned with the outsourcer’s third party risk management framework and policies, and follow the best practices and guidelines provided by the Shared Assessments Program and other industry standards.
References:
• 1: THIRD PARTY RISK MANAGEMENT TOOLKIT - Shared Assessments, pages 4-6
• 2: How Dynamic Scoping Can Improve Vendor Risk Assessments - ProcessUnity
• 3: Inherent Risk Tiering for Third-Party Vendor Assessments - MindPoint Group
정답:
Explanation:
Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is an electronic authentication method that requires a user to present two or more pieces of evidence (or factors) to an authentication mechanism. The factors can be something the user knows (such as a password or a PIN), something the user has (such as a smartphone or a security token), or something the user is (such as a fingerprint or a facial recognition). MFA enhances the security of online accounts and applications by making it harder for attackers to gain access with stolen or guessed credentials. MFA is recommended as a best practice for third-party risk management, as it can reduce the risk of unauthorized access, data breaches, and identity theft. MFA is also a requirement for some regulatory standards and frameworks, such as PCI DSS, HIPAA, and NIST 800-63.
References:
• What is: Multifactor Authentication
• Set up your Microsoft 365 sign-in for multi-factor authentication
• Multi-factor authentication - Wikipedia
• Shared Assessments CTPRP Study Guide, page 19
• Shared Assessments CTPRP Job Guide, page 14
• Best Practices Guidance for Third Party Risk, page 9
정답:
Explanation:
One of the key objectives of a TPRM program is to identify and mitigate the risks posed by third parties throughout the relationship life cycle. Therefore, measuring the operational performance of implementing a TPRM program requires tracking the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and activities. Among the four examples given, calculating the average time to remediate identified corrective actions is the most likely to provide meaningful metrics for this purpose. This metric indicates how quickly and consistently the organization and its third parties can resolve the issues and gaps that are discovered during the risk assessment and monitoring phases. It also reflects the level of collaboration and communication between the parties, as well as the alignment of expectations and standards. A lower average time to remediate implies a higher operational performance of the TPRM program, as it demonstrates a proactive and responsive approach to risk management12.
The other three examples are less likely to provide meaningful metrics for measuring the operational performance of implementing a TPRM program, as they do not directly measure the outcomes or impacts of the risk management activities. Logging the number of exceptions to existing due diligence standards may indicate the level of compliance and consistency of the TPRM program, but it does not show how the exceptions are handled or justified. Measuring the time spent by resources for task and corrective action plan completion may indicate the level of effort and resource allocation of the TPRM program, but it does not show how the tasks and plans contribute to the risk reduction or mitigation. Tracking the number of outstanding findings may indicate the level of exposure and vulnerability of the TPRM program, but it does not show how the findings are prioritized or addressed.
References:
• 1: 15 KPIs & Metrics to Measure the Success of Your TPRM Program | UpGuard Blog
• 2: Third-Party Risk Management Reporting: What You Need to Know - Venminder