CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 온라인 연습
최종 업데이트 시간: 2025년08월13일
당신은 온라인 연습 문제를 통해 CompTIA 220-1202 시험지식에 대해 자신이 어떻게 알고 있는지 파악한 후 시험 참가 신청 여부를 결정할 수 있다.
시험을 100% 합격하고 시험 준비 시간을 35% 절약하기를 바라며 220-1202 덤프 (최신 실제 시험 문제)를 사용 선택하여 현재 최신 75개의 시험 문제와 답을 포함하십시오.
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VPN clients often create virtual network adapters. If the software wasn't uninstalled properly or crashed during install, leftover (often hidden) virtual adapters can prevent reinstallation. The proper solution is to delete hidden network adapters using Device Manager (with “Show hidden devices” enabled).
A. OS updates won’t fix a leftover driver or adapter issue.
B. Mapping an adapter to the software is not a standard or viable solution.
C. Firmware updates apply to physical adapters, not virtual VPN adapters.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.1: Troubleshoot common Windows OS and network issues.
Study Guide Section: Troubleshooting network adapter conflicts and VPN client errors
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When a spreadsheet becomes very large, opening and processing it requires more memory (RAM). If the system doesn't have sufficient memory, it may fail to load the file properly. Upgrading or increasing the available RAM can resolve performance and loading issues with very large files.
A. Restore points roll back system settings, not individual file content.
C. Defragmentation optimizes disk performance but won’t help with memory issues.
D. Network speed has no effect if the file is stored and opened locally.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot common application and performance issues. Study Guide Section: Troubleshooting large-file performance and system resource limitations
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PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) allows workstations to boot over the network and download an OS image from a server. It is ideal for automating mass deployments using baseline images across many machines without the need for physical media.
A. An ISO is a disk image file but requires mounting or physical media.
B. Secure Boot is a security feature, not a method of deploying OS images.
C. USB requires manual installation and is not suitable for automated deployment at scale.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate Microsoft operating system installation methods.
Study Guide Section: Remote installation methods ― PXE boot deployment
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User offboarding involves disabling the departing user's access to company systems and facilities.
Two key tasks typically include:
Deactivating physical access credentials (e.g., key fobs or badges) to prevent unauthorized entry (B). Suspending or disabling the user’s email account to prevent future use and to retain business communications (D).
A. Quarantining a hard drive is not standard unless malware or legal issues are involved.
C. Purging PII must follow legal retention policies; it's not typically an immediate offboarding task.
E. Disabling network ports may be relevant in some cases but is not a standard offboarding step.
F. Blocking MAC addresses is not typical unless the device is considered a security threat.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, implement proper documentation and offboarding procedures.
Study Guide Section: User lifecycle management ― onboarding and offboarding tasks
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A bollard is a sturdy physical barrier―often a steel or concrete post―designed to prevent vehicles or unauthorized individuals from ramming into or entering secure areas of a building. It provides physical security and is commonly used outside entrances to prevent forced entry.
A. PIV (Personal Identity Verification) cards are used for identity access control, not physical blocking.
B. Motion lighting may deter activity but doesn’t physically prevent entry.
C. Surveillance records activity but cannot stop a forced entry.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast physical security measures.
Study Guide Section: Physical security devices ― barriers, bollards, and deterrents
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The amount of installed RAM is the key factor in determining whether a 64-bit OS is needed. A 32-bit operating system cannot effectively address more than 4GB of RAM. Since this system has 16GB of RAM, a 64-bit OS is required to utilize the full memory.
B. An Intel i7 CPU supports both 32-bit and 64-bit OS installations, so it alone doesn’t determine the need.
C. HDD size does not influence OS architecture selection.
D. Ethernet speed is a network consideration and not related to OS architecture.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, choose the appropriate Microsoft OS installation methods and configurations.
Study Guide Section: 32-bit vs. 64-bit system requirements and memory limitations
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If unauthorized or non-standard applications are appearing on systems and users are receiving licensing prompts, it’s likely users are installing software themselves. Removing users from the local administrators group will prevent them from installing software without approval and reduce the likelihood of introducing unapproved or malicious programs.
A. Deploying a PKI helps with secure communications but doesn’t address user software installation rights.
C. Blocking suspicious websites is helpful but doesn’t prevent local installations. D. Stricter UAC may add prompts but can still be bypassed by admin users.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast access control methods and user privilege settings.
Study Guide Section: Principle of least privilege and managing local admin rights
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Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the user's files and demands a payment (ransom) for the decryption key. When a user receives a message stating that their files are encrypted and cannot be accessed, ransomware is the most likely cause. The attacker’s goal is to hold the data hostage until the victim pays to restore access.
A. Keylogger records keystrokes and doesn’t encrypt files.
C. Phishing is a social engineering tactic to gather credentials, not to encrypt data.
D. Crypto miner uses system resources to mine cryptocurrency, not encrypt files.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.3: Compare and contrast common types of malware and threats. Study Guide Section: Ransomware behavior and user impact
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Background applications can significantly drain a smartphone’s battery, even when the device is idle. A technician should first review which apps are running in the background and consuming power through the battery usage section of the OS. Disabling or restricting power-hungry apps often resolves poor battery life.
A. Storage usage doesn’t significantly affect battery life.
B. End of software support is unrelated to battery performance unless it's causing inefficient processes, which would still be secondary.
C. Charger wattage affects charging speed, not battery life after charging.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot common mobile OS and application issues.
Study Guide Section: Diagnosing battery and app performance issues on mobile devices
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A management profile is used to enforce corporate policies on Apple devices. These profiles are installed via an MDM (Mobile Device Management) solution and control access, restrictions, Wi-Fi settings, app installations, and more. They’re critical for managing devices in a business environment.
A. The App Store allows software downloads but doesn’t control policies.
B. VPN configuration is used for secure remote connections, not enforcement of restrictions.
C. Apple ID is for personal account access to Apple services, not corporate device management.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security tools and MDM features. Study Guide Section: Mobile device management and configuration profiles (Apple/iOS)
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BitLocker is Microsoft’s full disk encryption technology built into Windows Pro and Enterprise editions. It encrypts the entire drive, protecting data if the device is lost or stolen. BitLocker can use TPM (Trusted Platform Module) and can be configured with PINs or USB keys for added security.
A. Active Directory is for centralized user and policy management in domains.
B. NTFS is the file system format and doesn't provide encryption by itself.
C. EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts individual files or folders, not the entire drive.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.2: Compare and contrast security measures and encryption tools. Study Guide Section: Encryption options ― BitLocker vs. EFS
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If a system becomes unresponsive while opening a specific spreadsheet, the issue is likely tied to the file’s size or the complexity of its content (e.g., embedded formulas, macros, or graphics). High memory utilization caused by the file can lead to temporary freezing or application "Not Responding" messages. Checking the spreadsheet's file size and monitoring system memory in Task Manager will help isolate performance bottlenecks.
A. Anti-malware logs are important for security troubleshooting but less likely relevant to spreadsheet-related performance issues.
B. Workstation repair is for system-wide problems and not necessary for a single-file issue.
C. Bandwidth relates to network usage and wouldn’t impact opening a local file.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot common application issues.
Study Guide Section: Troubleshooting application slowness and performance using Task Manager and resource monitoring tools
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Outdated images and website data often result from cached files in the browser. The Internet Options panel in Windows (specifically under the General tab) allows users to clear browsing history, including cached images and files, which forces the browser to load the most current versions of web content.
A. Administrative Tools is used for advanced system management, not browser settings.
B. Windows Defender Firewall controls network traffic and security rules, not caching.
D. Ease of Access provides accessibility features for users with disabilities ― unrelated to web browsing issues.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.3: Troubleshoot common software and application issues.
Study Guide Section: Internet Options and browser cache clearing for display issues
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An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point set up to mimic a legitimate Wi-Fi network. Unsuspecting users may connect to it, giving attackers the opportunity to intercept traffic, steal credentials, or install malware. The evil twin often uses the same SSID as the real network to fool users.
A. Stalkerware is spyware installed to track user activity, typically on personal devices.
C. Tailgating is a physical security breach involving unauthorized entry behind someone with access.
D. Shoulder surfing involves observing a person entering confidential data, such as PINs or
passwords.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.3: Compare and contrast social engineering and wireless attacks. Study Guide Section: Wireless threats ― rogue APs and evil twin scenarios
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In the context of artificial intelligence, "hallucinations" refer to instances where an AI system generates information that is plausible-sounding but factually incorrect or entirely fabricated. This is a known limitation of large language models, including generative AI tools.
A. Data privacy refers to the protection of personal or sensitive data, not content accuracy.
C. Appropriate use relates to ethical and policy-based concerns, not factual correctness.
D. Plagiarism involves presenting someone else's work as your own ― this situation is about accuracy, not ownership.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 4.4: Identify basic concepts of scripting and automation. Study Guide Section: AI tools and responsible usage ― hallucinations and fact-checking outputs